What a strange question to arise the way it did!

Someone came over to me at church and said he was speaking to someone who was there for the first time and that the guy had a question.  When I spoke to him he said:

• He was brought up Roman Catholic but struggled with the “praying to Mary” thing;
• For some time he had been going to an Apostolic church but struggled with the fact that they allowed women to teach
• He was trying out new churches to see if he would be more comfortable.

The really curious thing is that he even came and tried us!  After all, The Salvation Army has probably been the most progressive church in the history of the world as far as gender equality is concerned. We’ve had women Generals and have always had good women preachers/teachers.

But our conversation got me thinking because he was not blindly following a line, he really had thought it through.

The Discussion

Him

Quotes Paul speaking to Timothy about instructions for worship:
“But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.” (1 Timothy 2:12, NASB95)

Me

But all the letters need to be read in context.  What was happening in the church involved (at Ephesus) to prompt this comment from Paul.  Surely in the society involved its likely the women had no teaching of the scriptures and therefore wouldn’t be in a position to teach.  Things are very different now.

Him

I accept that, but if that was the only reason why would Paul have added the next 2 verses?
“For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve. And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression.” (1 Timothy 2:13-14, NASB95)

Me

Good point!  I’ll have to go away and research it a bit more.  That said, Paul also said that in Christ there was no slave and free, no man and woman etc etc.

Him

But that seems too general to over-ride such a specific instruction.

Me

What say I do some further research and if you come back next week, not only will we discuss it but you’ll also hear my wife preaching

Where to from here?

Having looked into it further I have quite strong opinions but it’s not for me to force these on anyone.  Instead I offer these questions that I will also put to the chap in question (if he’s brave enough to come and hear my wife teach this week!)

1. Are women today in a different position as they are now just as educated as men?
2. Assuming that teaching of men by women would violate moral standards of decency in the culture into which Paul speaks, is it reasonable to apply a cultural context when applying it today (as that moral standard has happily gone by the board today)?
3. Is Paul’s “I do not allow” a command for all time even though it isn’t expressed as an imperative (in the Greek)?
4. If we believe it is a command for all time, should we be consistent and also enforce Paul’s rules about head-coverings… and possibly even his thoughts on slavery?

Lets settle this vexed question once and for all

Have your say!  How do you read this passage? Should woman teach in church or not?

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